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disease outbreaks, occupational injuries, and chronic diseases

include disease outbreaks, occupational injuries, or chronic diseases. Review the journal article. During your discussion, post a link to the article and identify the following:
· State the purpose of the article.
· What is the point estimate?
· What is the standard error?
· What is the confidence level and margin of error?
· Why do you feel the article would include the standard error and error of margin? Please discuss.
                                              1 Completely Full Page
ARTICLE LINK file:///F:/Preventing%20Diseases%20and%20Outbreaks%20at%20Child%20Care%20Centers%20.pdf

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Students are required to conduct an in-depth case study of a particular company or industry of personal interest that analyzes and applies the concepts and lessons from the course (TECHNOLOGY AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT)

Requirement: Final Research Paper
Students are required to conduct an in-depth case study of a particular company or industry of personal interest that analyzes and applies the concepts and lessons from the course (TECHNOLOGY AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT).
 
This individual research paper is your final examination for this course. The topics of the research paper must be approved by Professor by Session 5. Students should email Professor with a paragraph outline of the intended focus of their research paper. Completed research papers should be 6-8 single spaced pages.
 
Information about the course:
 
Session 1: Business Strategy, Process, Innovation and Information Technology
Session 2: IT-enabled Product and Service Innovation
Session 3: Understanding Process Analysis and Innovation
Session 4: IT-enabled Innovations in Customer Facing Processes
Session 5: Justification and Evaluation of IT-based Innovation projects
 
 
Background
Over the past 60 years, significant advances in Information and Communications
Technology (ICT – typically abbreviated in the US to ―IT‖) have allowed business
organizations to develop increasingly sophisticated information systems (IS). IT has
moved far beyond the support and automation of back office clerical operations to the
foreground of being a key enabler of business processes, and an essential platform for
enabling innovations in business strategy, processes, products and services. Today,
almost every business process in most industries is enabled by, and often dependent
upon, contemporary information and communications technologies.
However, as was discussed in ISTM 603, while contemporary IT offers significant
potential value, actual realization of this value has been elusive for many firms.
Effective use of IT that is consistent with the intended business benefits plays a critical
role in realizing the potential value that IT offers for business innovation. Unfortunately,
effective use of IT is fraught with risks and challenges. Over 50% of IT implementations
in business contexts fail to deliver their anticipated business benefits.
Consequently, a firm‘s ability to identify potential value-adding IT-enabled strategic
and operational innovations, design the processes and/or products/services to embody
these potential innovations, and more importantly to successfully deploy and implement
these innovations to bring about effective adoption and use that leads to the realization
of the intended business impacts have become key enablers of business innovation and
competitive differentiation. The pervasiveness of IT within business enterprises, and their
strategic and operational dependency upon IT, places the PRIMARY responsibility for
managing IT-enabled business innovation with business executives, not with IT
professionals.
For IT professionals, there are growing indications that the critical ―in-house‖ IT
competencies and capabilities needed by firms are changing in the context of offshore IT
development, cloud-based IT services, and third-party technical support. Consequently,
there is an increased need for IT professionals who have a clear understanding of the
information and business needs for IT-based systems, and how to partner with business
executives to bring about the adoption and use of these systems.

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Aseptic Transfers & Inoculation Methods

Lab 1
Aseptic Transfers & Inoculation Methods (Ex 1-3)
Streak Plate Method (Ex 1-4)
Aseptic Technique

  • Aseptic = free of contamination
  • Purpose:
  • To keep our cultures from becoming contaminated
  • To keep the lab environment from becoming contaminated
  • To keep us from becoming infected by our cultures
Labeling cultures

  • Always include:
  • The name of the organism or specimen
  • Your name or initials
  • The date inoculated
  • For broths/slants, label so you can still see growth
  • For plates, label on the bottom, the side with the growth medium
  • Label before you inoculate
Sources of Contamination
From our culture’s point of view:

  • us
  • the air
  • objects & surfaces in the environment

From our point of view:

  • the culture
Materials we’ll be using today

  • Culture Media
  • Broths (1 per student)
  • Slants (1 per student)
  • Plates (2 per student)
  • Inoculating Loop
  • Bunsen Burner
  • Flint Striker
Demonstration of slant to broth transfer
(See Ex1-3, p. 32-37 in lab manual)

  • Tube of broth & labeling
  • Aseptic technique
  • Inoculum
  • Transfer to fresh broth
  • Incubation at 37°C
Demonstration of slant to slant transfer

  • Slant & labeling
  • Aseptic technique
  • Inoculum
  • Transfer to fresh slant
  • Incubation at 37°C
Streak Plate Method

  • Purpose: To check or establish the purity of a culture
  • Pure culture = contains a single species
  • Mixed culture = contains more than 1 species
  • Principle: Organisms are diluted out over the surface of a growth medium, so individual cells will grow to form visible colonies
  • Colony = a visible mass of cells
  • 1 cell = 1 colony-forming unit (CFU);
  • The assumption is that 1 cell grows to form 1 colony
Streak Plate Method (see p. 43)
Quadrant Streak Method
* FLAME    
Heat loop
Inoculate culture
Streak
1st quadrant
A good streak plate

  • Is appropriately labeled
  • Has appropriate pattern for streak lines
  • Uses the entire plate
  • Has well-isolated colonies
  • Is free of contamination
  • One colony type
Demonstration of Streak Plate Method

  • Agar plate & labeling
  • Aseptic technique
  • Inoculum
  • Streak pattern
  • Incubation (inverted) at 37°C
Expectations: Work as individuals

  • Aseptically transfer from stock slant culture to a fresh broth and to a fresh slant – use “S. marcescens ” or “M. luteus” or “E. coli” or “S. sapro”
  • Label appropriately with the organism, your name or initials, & date
  • Aseptically Streak 1 plate using the quadrant method
  • Use “culture used above”
  • Label appropriately
  • Incubate in plate in inverted position
  • Aseptically Streak a 2nd plate using the quadrant method
  • Use “mixed culture”
  • Label appropriately
  • Incubate in plate in inverted position
  • Put all your cultures into the incubator (37°C), on the shelf for this section
Expectations: Work as individuals

  • After inoculations are complete, Work on Simple Stain from last week
  • Ex. 3.5, pg. 186-187 Making a Bacterial Smear and Simple Stain procedure.
Gather around for demonstration
(use real inoculum)

  • Broth to broth transfer
  • Plate to slant transfer
  • Streak plate method
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Describe the molecular basis behind Gram staining

Micro Biology Lab Packet

NAME: Section/Time:

Microbiology Lab Packet #2

Think of these lab packets as homework for the lab part of the class. They are designed to help prepare you for the departmental lab exams. To answer these questions you will need to use both the lab workbook as well as your text book. In addition to these questions, you will need to turn in the signed data sheets from your workbook.

19. Describe the molecular basis behind Gram staining. What part of the bacteria is stained with the primary stain, what part is stained with the counter stain? Why do we wash alcohol over the slide before the counter stain?

18. Describe in great detail the steps in performing a Gram stain. Include incubation times. Define primary stain and counter stain. In the Gram stain, what dye is primary stain, which is the counter stain?

Special Stains (Capsule Ex. 3.9, Endospore Ex. 3-10, Flagella Ex. 3.12)

21. What is the stain is shown in the picture below? What is stained green, what is stained red?

22. Describe in great detail the steps in performing an endospore stain. Include incubation times.

20. What does it mean to be Gram positive, Gram negative?

image1.jpg

23. Label the different flagellum arrangements seen below.

image2.jpg

24. Describe the negative staining technique and determine when it is used.

Colony Morphology Ex 2.2

25. We can learn some information about bacteria by just looking at its growth on an agar plate. What is a small isolated growth of bacteria on an agar plate called and what can it tell us about the bacteria?

Micro lab packet 2

Kirby-Bauer Method Ex 7.3

26. Describe in great detail the technique used to determine bacteria sensitivity to antibiotics?

27. What is the type of media used in the Kirby-Bauer test and why is it used?

Describe what is observed for a bacteria that is sensitive to antibiotics in a Kirby-Bauer test, and to a bacteria that is not sensitive to antibiotics.

28. How does the antibiotic get from the disk into the agar?

Does the agar have an antibiotic beyond the zone of inhibition?

29. Define the MIC and explain how it is used to determine if a bacteria is resistant or sensitive to the antibiotic.

Is the presence of a clear zone around the disc enough evidence to determine antibiotic resistance?

Micro lab packet 2

Disinfectants Ex 2.14

30. Compare your results with the class data.

Which germicide was most effective and at what concentration?

Which was the least effective? Defend your choices.

31. Which organism seemed to be most resistant to the germicides?

32. What purpose did the four controls serve? Be specific.

Include Completed Data sheets for:

1. Data Sheet 3-7 (pages 201-202) Sketch & id whether Gram + or Gram – and Questions 1-2

2. Data Sheet 3-9 (pages 213-214) Sketch capsuled stained bacteria; Questions 1 & 2

3. Data Sheet 3-10 (pages 219-220) Sketch Endospore Stained bacteria; Questions 1-4

4. Data Sheet 3-12 (pages 227-228) Sketch Flagella Stained bacteria; Questions 1 & 3

5. Data Sheet 2-14 (pages 139-140) Questions 1-3

6. Data Sheet 7-3 (pages 535-536) Questions 1-7

Gram Staining 3.7

33. What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?

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Osteocytes and Osteoclasts

Which statement is NOT true regarding the skeletal system? 
Answers:
A. Spongy bone of flat bones in adults is commonly filled with red bone marrow
B. External stresses placed on bone (such as exercise) will increase the bone matrix density
C. Osteocytes are “connected” to one another via canaliculi
D. Osteoclasts secrete collagen fibers to induce increased bone density
Question 2
Which choice is true regarding myoglobin?
Answers:
A. It is a molecule that can store ATP molecules within the muscle cell
B. It is a molecule that can store glycogen to be used to make ATP
C. It causes muscle cells to have a reddish color/appearance
D. Found in high concentrations within fast glycolytic muscle fibers
Question 3
What statement is NOT true regarding synovial joints?
Answers:
A. Every synovial joint has a meniscus
B. The joint cavity is completely surrounded by an articular capsule
C. The joint cavity contains synovial fluid
D. Articular cartilage covers the epiphyseal ends of articulating bones
Question 4
Which statement is true of articulations (joints)?
Answers:
A. Cartilaginous joints are freely moveable
B. Tendons do not assist in stabilization of joints
C. Bursas assist cartilaginous joints function
D. Cranial bone sutures are classified as fibrous joints
Question 5
Autosomal recessive traits and disorders typically show up in each generation.
Answers:
True
False
Question 6
Which bone cell is responsible for stimulating the production of extracellular matrix and increasing its overall concentration?
Answers:
A. Osteocyte
B. Osteoblast
C. Osteogenic
D. Osteoclast
Question 7
Osmosis is the movement of random molecules from a high to low concentration across a selectively permeable membrane?
Answers:
True
False
Question 8
What is the best statement to describe what a fascicle is?
Answers:
A. It is a connective tissue covering around an individual muscle cell (fiber)
B. It is a connective tissue covering a group muscle cells (fibers)
C. It is a protective connective tissue covering around the muscle
D. It is a pathway for blood vessels to reach the muscle cells
Question 9
Blood cell production is a primary function of the skeletal system?
Answers:
True
False
Question 10
The organic components of the extracellular matrix space include collagen fibers?
Answers:
True
False
Question 11
A ligament connects a muscle to a bone while a tendon stabilizes a joint by connecting or joining one bone to another.
Answers:
True
False
Question 12
The arrangement of the fascicles in a muscle influences the direction a muscle will contraction?
Answers:
True
False
Question 13
Sodium ions (Na+) must bind to troponin in order for the muscle contraction process to occur?
Answers:
True
False
Question 14
Which is not true of muscular tissue and/or muscle contraction?
Answers:
A. Slow oxidative muscle fibers contain myoglobin giving these fibers a reddish color
B. A sarcomere consists of both thick and thin filaments
C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores the calcium ions utilized for muscle contraction
D. The passing of the action potential from the nerve to the muscle cell occurs because the nerve is in direct contact with the muscle cell
Question 15
The cross bridging process in muscle contraction requires ATP?
Answers:
True
False
Question 16
Which type of skin cancer has the highest fatality rate?
Answers:
A. Melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Keratinoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
Question 17
The majority of joints within the body are classified as:
Answers:
A. Cartilaginous
B. Synovial
C. Fibrous
D. Synarthroses
Question 18
Aerobic respiration creates lactic acid as a by product but produces far more ATP than anaerobic respiration?
Answers:
True
False
Question 19
Which cellular organelle is responsible for the production of ATP?
Answers:
A. Lysosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Gogli apparatus
D. Nucleus
Question 20
A strain occurs when there is ligament damage to a joint?
Answers:
True
False
Question 21
Parathyroid gland will cause an increase activity of the osteoclasts?
Answers:
True
False
Question 22
Which choice is NOT true regarding bone tissue?
Answers:
A. Trabeculae are found within spongy bone
B. One of the organic materials of bone include calcium
C. Osteocytes reside within a little open space called lacuna within bone tissue
D. The periosteum is the outer protective covering of bone
Question 23
This type of gland secretes an oily secretion that helps lubricate and keeps the skin and hair from becoming dried out?
Answers:
A. Eccrine gland
B. Ceruminous gland
C. Sebaceous gland
D. Apocrine gland
Question 24
Which is the cell found in majority within the epidermis?
Answers:
A. Melanocytes
B. Keratinocytes
C. Osteocytes
D. Basal cells
Question 25
Which is NOT true regarding the epiphyseal plates?
Answers:
A. They can be utilized to determine whether a bone is still growing longitudinally
B. It is a result of bone being converted into cartilage so the bone can grow
C. They are not visible on X-ray because of the cartilage they are composed of
D. Commonly found at the epiphyses of long bones
Question 26
Which of the following muscles is not a SITS muscle?
Answers:
A. Pectoralis major
B. Teres minor
C. Supraspinatus
D. Subscapularis
Question 27
Skin cancer originates in the dermis of the skin?
Answers:
True
False
Question 28
A motor unit is all the muscle fibers one motor neuron innervates?
Answers:
True
False
Question 29
This type of tissue is found exposed to external environments, lines hollow organs such as the stomach and bladder, and plays an integral role in the epidermis?
Answers:
A. Nervous tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Muscular tissue
Question 30
What is NOT a Characteristic to a synovial joint?
Answers:
A. Synovial fluid lubricates the joint and prevents excessive wear on the joints
B. The synovial membrane produces synovial fluid
C. The joint cavity space tends to stay the same through life even with trauma
D. The synovial joint is stabilized by ligaments
Question 31
What is NOT found in the dermis layer of skin?
Answers:
A. Melanin
B. Collagen fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. Muscular tissue
Question 32
Wolf’s law of bone relates to the concept of bone density is directly related to the dietary ingestion of calcium?
Answers:
True
False
Question 33
For the thick filament and the thin filament to release or un-attach during muscle contraction, this process requires ATP?
Answers:
True
False
Question 34
What is not a function of the integument system?
Answers:
A. Assist in the production of vitamin D
B. Assist in regulation of the body temperature
C. Excretion of waste
D. Assist in the protection of calcium loss within the body
Question 35
Which statement is NOT true regarding muscles?
Answers:
A. A sprain is damage to a muscle or its tendon
B. The antagonist muscle or muscle group opposes a movement of a particular muscle or muscle group
C. The insertion point of a muscle is attached to the moveable bone during joint motion
D. Certain muscles have multiple origin points
Question 36
Which choice best describes the function of the haversian (central) canals within bone?
Answers:
A. To provide protection to the bone cells
B. To make bones less in weight
C. To provide nutrients to the bone cells
D. To make new collagen fibers within bone
Question 37
Which of the choices is NOT true regarding muscle contraction?
Answers:
A. T-tubules help transmit the action potential deep into muscle cell to stimulate the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. The myosin head binds to the actin protein of the thin filament
C. ATP is needed for the power stroke to occur
D. A nerve impulse (action potential) is required to have acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft
Question 38
Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis?
Answers:
A. The damage is usually reversible
B. It commonly occurs in younger individuals
C. Degenerative changes occur to the articular cartilage
D. It is an autoimmune disease
Question 39
Aerobic respiration is performed by which cellular organelle?
Answers:
A. Nucleus
B. Gogli apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Question 40
What statement is true of the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint?
Answers:
A. The bones of the shoulder joint include the humerus, scapula and sternum
B. The humeral head is connected deep into the acetabulum of the scapula by a ligament
C. The SITS muscle tendons help stabilize the shoulder joint
D. The hip joint commonly dislocates more frequently than the shoulder joint
Question 41
Which statement is true of the epiphyseal plates of bones?
Answers:
A. Allow for longitudinal bone growth to occur
B. Produce the blood cells for the skeletal system
C. Largely composed of collagen and elastic fibers
D. Found in bones of adults and children
Question 42
Which statement is NOT true regarding the hip?
Answers:
A. Is commonly dislocated
B. It is considered a synovial joint
C. It is more stable then the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint
D. It has a ligament that connects the femoral head into the acetabulum
Question 43
Which statement is NOT true regarding articulations?
Answers:
A. The hip joint contains a meniscus which helps stabilizes the joint
B. The knee joint has four main ligaments that stabilize it
C. The articulation between two vertebrae is classified as a cartilaginous joint
D. The wrist joint is classified as a synovial joint
Question 44
What is the layer between the epidermis and dermis that is ultimately responsible for fingerprints called?
Answers:
A. Reticular layer
B. Friction ridges
C. Dermal papillae
D. Flexure lines
Question 45
Negative feedback loops are utilized by the body to maintain metabolism?
Answers:
True
False
Question 46
Which is NOT true regarding osteoporosis?
Answers:
A. Vertebrae and femoral neck fractures are a common complication
B. It is loss of density of the matrix in spongy bone only
C. It is commonly diagnosed in post-menopausal women
D. Vitamin D plays an important role in its prevention
Question 47
Which of the following protein molecules provides the binding site for the myosin heads?
Answers:
A. Tropomyosin
B. Myofilament
C. Troponin
D. Actin
Question 48
A bursa can reduce the friction of a tendon rubbing over a bone?
Answers:
True
False
Question 49
The first step in bone fracture repair is the formation of the fibrocartilaginous callus?
Answers:
True
False
Question 50
Which statement is NOT true of articulations (joints)?
Answers:
A. The knee joint contains a mensci to help minimize wear and tear on the joint surfaces
B. The ends of bones within a synovial joint are all covered with articular cartilage
C. The shoulder joint is mainly stabilized by the SITS muscles
D. Damage done to joints by osteoarthritis is reversible

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Monocots and Dicots Roots

Answer all of the following questions:
1. What are the three domains of life and what are the differences between them? Provide some examples.
2. What are the differences between Monocots and Dicots Roots?
3. Describe the alteration in plants generations?
4. Describe the process of pollination?
5. What is the Cohesion-tension theory?
6. Classify the members of the plant kingdom?
7. Using examples, explain how plants and their pollinators evolved to adapt to each other?
8. Arrange the following taxonomic categories from the most specific to the most general:
genus, domain, family, phylum, order.
9. List 2 ways ferns are different from other seedless vascular ferns?
10. List 4 advantages of seed plants?
11. Explain why plants are considered a monophyletic group
12. Explain how the hormone Auxin helps a plant achieve positive phototropism?
13. Your neighbor is trying to prevent aging (senescence) of leaves in his plants, and also encourage new leaf growth. What should he do?

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How does the packaging of bacterial DNA differ from that of eukaryotic DNA

 
1.A)How does the packaging of bacterial DNA differ from that of eukaryotic DNA? Why does it differ?
B) How does the packing of eukaryotic DNA differ in interphase and metaphase? Is this difference related to the different roles of DNA in interphase and metaphase?
C) Illustrate the structure of the nucleus and its envelope.
D) How are macromolecules transported across the nuclear envelope? Describe the structure that regulates nuclear membrane permeability.
E)Describe the appearance, location, and function of the nucleolus.